h
Hank Scorpio
Posts: 5,734
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Post by h on Dec 6, 2013 0:09:38 GMT -5
Yes, it's a law. It avoids legal battles by giving the title to a third party rather than keeping it in limbo (or, worse, having it return to a state of limbo many years down the road). Naturally, it does not apply to properties that have not truly been abandoned. A vacation/trip/visit to the dentist is obviously not enough to declare a property abandoned.
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Post by CATCH_US IS the Conversation on Dec 6, 2013 0:14:49 GMT -5
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Post by Evilution E5150 on Dec 6, 2013 1:44:30 GMT -5
how did the family not just break in and kick the guys ass, if that happened to me and my personal property i would pretty much lose my shit
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Post by crowwreak was WRONG on Dec 6, 2013 2:22:47 GMT -5
If that was my house, I'd file a motion to beat the holy McShit out of the guy
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Post by SsnakeBite, the No1 Frenchman on Dec 6, 2013 4:11:07 GMT -5
Wait, even if it's abandoned, how can it be legal to claim a house someone else owns as yours? Does it work for everything? Cars? Clothes? Wives? Cities?! I think squatter's laws come into play with houses, which also means you have to live there a really long time without the owners coming back before you can lay claim to it. With something like this, I imagine that even if the family wasn't involved, the bank would be. If the house was being foreclosed on, the bank would still own it and could kick him out. I imagine something like this only applies in cases where, say, someone owned the home and the property it sat on, then died with no heirs to take over. Yeah, that WOULD make more sense than "hey, these guys haven't been in their house for like a week! They're obviously not using so it's mine now!". I also would have thought there would be some kind of process to check if the house is actually abandoned and not owned by anyone else, rather than the "well, we'll just take your word for it that the house is abandoned" logic that seems to be in effect here. |
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